You are counselling a couple that is concerned about the risk that their second child could be affected by the same X-linked recessive disorder (hemophilia A) as their last child, a boy. Neither parent has this disorder.
What is the probability that their second child will be affected?

• A.25% if the child is a girl
• B.25% if the child is a boy
• C.50% if the child is a girl
• D.50% if the child is a boy
• E.100% whether the child is a boy or a girl

Comment: *

Name: *

Email: *

Verification: *

You are a family physician caring for a healthy 60-year-old woman. Which one of the following preventative interventions is most useful?

• A.Cervical cytology every year.
• B.Fasting lipid profile every year.
• C.Bone densitometry every 2 years.
• D.Mammography every 2 years.
• E.Fasting blood glucose every year.

Comment: *

Name: *

Email: *

Verification: *

A 60-year-old man has a strong family history of aortic aneurysms. Screening abdominal ultrasonography reveals an incidental <1 cm mass in his left kidney. Computed tomography confirms that the mass is consistent with renal adenocarcinoma. Which one of the following is the most appropriate step in management?

• A.Arrange magnetic resonance imaging of the abdomen
• B.Refer to radiation oncology
• C.Plan partial nephrectomy
• D.Repeat computed tomography in 6 months
• E.Organize angiographic ablation of the renal mass

Comment: *

Name: *

Email: *

Verification: *

During an office visit, your 14-year-old patient requests a prescription for oral contraceptives. The province where you are working does not have a statutory age of consent. Which one of the following is the best next step?

• A.Notify child protective services because of the possibility of sexual abuse.
• B.Give her the prescription and book a follow-up appointment.
• C.Advise her to return with her parents so that legal consent can be obtained.
• D.Determine her understanding of the medical issues before prescribing the pills.
• E.Refuse to prescribe the pills because she is less than 18 years of age.

Comment: *

Name: *

Email: *

Verification: *

A 31-year-old nulligravid woman presents to your office after 5 months of attempting to get pregnant without success. Her menses are regular, and she is otherwise healthy. Her husband is healthy and has never fathered any children before. Which one of the following is the best next step?

• A.Send her husband for a semen analysis
• B.Order a follicle-stimulating hormone level on day 3 of her cycle
• C.Arrange a hysterosalpingography after her next menses
• D.Advise her to adjust her diet and reduce her weight by 5%
• E.Reassure her and have her return after 12 months without conceiving

Comment: *

Name: *

Email: *

Verification: *