Free PRMIA 8011 Exam Dumps Questions & Answers
| Exam Code/Number: | 8011Join the discussion |
| Exam Name: | Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam |
| Certification: | PRMIA |
| Free Question Number: | 330 |
| Publish Date: | Aug 17, 2026 |
| # of views: | 2927 |
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Once the frequency and severity distributions for loss events have been determined, which of the following is an accurate description of the process to determine a full loss distribution foroperational risk?
Which of the following represents a riskier exposure for a bank: A LIBOR based loan, or an Overnight Indexed Swap? Which of the two rates is expected to be higher?
Assume the same counterparty and the same notional.
Which of the following statements are true:
I. The sum of unexpected losses for individual loans in a portfolio is equal to the total unexpected loss for the portfolio.
II. The sum of unexpected losses for individual loans in a portfolio is less than the total unexpected loss for the portfolio.
III. The sum of unexpected losses for individual loans in a portfolio is greater than the total unexpected loss for the portfolio.
IV. The unexpected loss for the portfolio is driven by the unexpected losses of the individual loans in the portfolio and the default correlation between these loans.
The accuracy of a VaR estimate based on a Monte carlo simulation of portfolio prices is affected by:
I). The shape of the distribution of portfolio values
II). The number simulations carried out
III). The confidence level selected for the VaR estimate
If the cumulative default probabilities of default for years 1 and 2 for a portfolio of credit risky assets is 5% and 15% respectively, what is the marginal probability of default in year 2 alone?
| 8011 Dumps Other Version | QA's | Publish Date |
| PRMIA.8011.v2025-06-11.q151 | 151 | Jun 11, 2025 |